Grammar police

[sten_super]

According to the Guardian, Cameron today said

I have never had one inappropriate conversation.

Surely it should be

I have not had one inappropriate conversation.

or

I have never had an inappropriate conversation.

?

 

[beorhthelm]

grammer lessons from the Grauniad, famous for misspelling

 

[Woodchip]

Can we have a poll? I'm going with number 3.

 

[8ace]

i of never had 1 inapropriate conversaytion

 

[Barrel of Fun]

The third would be the best. The second could mean that he has had more than one. The first is just shit.

 

[Sussex Nomad]

I have never had an inappropriate sex sesh with Rupey.

I digress.

 

[sten_super]

Can we have a poll? I'm going with number 3.

Done. I certainly think that 3 is the best option, although I think 2 is also grammatically correct (but bad).

 

[Colossal Squid]

Done. I certainly think that 3 is the best option, although I think 2 is also grammatically correct (but bad).

Agreed

 

[xenophon]

"I have never had one inappropriate conversation."

Vague - means you could have had 2 or more inappropriate conversations

"I have not had one inappropriate conversation."

Same as first sentence

"I have never had an inappropriate conversation."

is the right answer

 

[keaton]

grammer lessons from the Grauniad, famous for misspelling

I don't think the Guardian (Grauniad is so early 90s) is giving anyone grammar lessons are they?

 

[Sussex Nomad]

But 'I have not had ONE inappropriate conversation' could imply he is stating the bleeding obvious?

 

[Titanic]

I have never had a single inappropriate conversation...

 

[bpbill]

The reality is of course that he has had many inappropriate conversations therefore number one would be truth. Although I did vote for number three as being grammatically correct.

 

[Sussex Nomad]

All politicians are bent... bar none, worked with them for three years.

 

[Triggaaar]

They are all grammatically correct, but do have slightly different meanings.

"I have never had one inappropriate conversation."

Vague - means you could have had 2 or more inappropriate conversations

It is vague, but for it to be true, every time you had an inappropriate conversation (IC from now on), you would have had another. You couldn't have had one IC on Tuesday and one on Wednesday, you would have to have had two or more on both days.

"I have not had one inappropriate conversation."

Same as first sentence

This is actually worse than the first sentance, because you could have had one IC on Tuesday and another on Wednesday, and this statement would be correct.

"I have never had an inappropriate conversation."

is the right answer

Indeed, this would be the best way to explain what was presumably meant. Maybe he gave the first answer for good reason - when it comes out that he did have an IC, he'll just say 'yeah, I had loads - not just one'.

The reality is of course that he has had many inappropriate conversations therefore number one would be truth.

Number 2 would be the truth, but number one wouldn't really work, because if he has had many ICs, there are bound to be times when he had just one, which would make his statement untrue.

 

[Braders]

The third option is the correct usage , but I'm a common oik so I would probably get it wrong too

 

[MattBackHome]

Didn't he follow up with "All of my conversations are appropriate", suggesting #3 is closer to the button. Ridiculous though - what is or is not appropriate is entirely subjective. I think Cameron's very existence is inappropriate.

 

[Notters' Dad]

2 and 3 are both grammatically correct but since I can't vote for both, I haven't voted.

 

[Publius Ovidius]

the warta in majorka dunnt tayst like it oughta

 

[seagullsovergrimsby]

number 3 , although Dodgy Dave saying it doesn't necessarily mean its entirely accurate.