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Bradford on their way to Wembley



Goldstone Rapper

Rediffusion PlayerofYear
Jan 19, 2009
14,865
BN3 7DE
EUFA wanted a rule which stated that to play in a European competition the team had to play in their own domestic top league. Did it ever get passed.

Not sure. It was true that teams had to be in the top two divisions of a domestic league to qualify for Europe. Hence QPR and Swindon didn't get into Europe when they won the cup in the 1960s. I wonder if that's still the case.
 




Goldstone Rapper

Rediffusion PlayerofYear
Jan 19, 2009
14,865
BN3 7DE
Didn't Birmingham still play in Europe even though they were relegated?

Yes, and Ipswich too when they played in the UEFA Cup as a second tier team about ten years ago.
 




worthingseagull123

Well-known member
May 5, 2012
2,716
UEFA want to look after the big clubs.

If Bradford get to the final against Chelsea, then they should rightly get a place in Europe.
 








Peever

New member
Sep 5, 2010
1,733
Canada
Keeper for Bradford had a blinder. Could have easily been 3-1 Villa at the half. Fully deserved by Bradford mind. Our defending is horrid.
 


UEFA want to look after the big clubs.

If Bradford get to the final against Chelsea, then they should rightly get a place in Europe.

Nothing to do with Uefa this one, because that's not how the League Cup works.

If Bradford win the final against Chelsea, then afaik they would get into the Europa league.

However if Chelsea won, and they finish in CL spot the Europa League spot is given to 6th place team in prem not losing finalist. Only in FA Cup will runner up get a Europa place if the winner already has a place in Europe for the following season.
 




Simster

"the man's an arse"
Jul 7, 2003
55,936
Surrey
Nothing to do with Uefa this one, because that's not how the League Cup works.

If Bradford win the final against Chelsea, then afaik they would get into the Europa league.

However if Chelsea won, and they finish in CL spot the Europa League spot is given to 6th place team in prem not losing finalist. Only in FA Cup will runner up get a Europa place if the winner already has a place in Europe for the following season.
This is as I understand it too, and I think it's fair enough.

Obviously, most would rather see a 4th division team given a chance in Europe even if they "only" reached the final rather than winning it, but it is swings and roundabouts. Just imagine the kerfuffle on here if, say, Arsenal got into Europe by being runners up in the league cup over the 6th placed Premiership club, which could be Stoke, West brom or even the Albion having a stand-out season like Fulham did not so long ago...

I think I'd be pretty pissed off under those circumstances!
 


the wanderbus

Well-known member
Dec 7, 2004
3,027
pogle's wood
Not sure. It was true that teams had to be in the top two divisions of a domestic league to qualify for Europe. Hence QPR and Swindon didn't get into Europe when they won the cup in the 1960s. I wonder if that's still the case.

I'm sure there was no qualification for Europe by winning the league cup until later than that.Stoke were the first to get into Europe solely by winning the league cup in 1973 although Leeds, Spurs and Man City all won the league cup and finished high enough in the table to qualify in previous years. Iwould say euro qualification was given to league cup winners sometime between 1970 and 1973
 








Bognor Bystander

Looking for a new job
Oct 7, 2010
842
Bognor Regis
I'm sure there was no qualification for Europe by winning the league cup until later than that.Stoke were the first to get into Europe solely by winning the league cup in 1973 although Leeds, Spurs and Man City all won the league cup and finished high enough in the table to qualify in previous years. Iwould say euro qualification was given to league cup winners sometime between 1970 and 1973

Minor correction - Spurs won the League Cup in 1971 and 73 Stoke won it in 1972 beating Chelsea 2-1 ;o)
 


Goldstone Rapper

Rediffusion PlayerofYear
Jan 19, 2009
14,865
BN3 7DE
I'm sure there was no qualification for Europe by winning the league cup until later than that.Stoke were the first to get into Europe solely by winning the league cup in 1973 although Leeds, Spurs and Man City all won the league cup and finished high enough in the table to qualify in previous years. Iwould say euro qualification was given to league cup winners sometime between 1970 and 1973

While I appreciate Wikipedia isn't 100% accurate, its entry on Swindon appears to show that League Cup winners usually qualified for Europe by that point.

http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Swindon_Town_F.C.

Arsenal were no great shakes in the League in 1968/69 so I assume they qualified for the European Fairs' Cup in 1969/70 which they won, by stealing Swindon's place. A bit cheeky.
 




the wanderbus

Well-known member
Dec 7, 2004
3,027
pogle's wood
while i appreciate wikipedia isn't 100% accurate, its entry on swindon appears to show that league cup winners usually qualified for europe by that point.

http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/swindon_town_f.c.

Arsenal were no great shakes in the league in 1968/69 so i assume they qualified for the european fairs' cup in 1969/70 which they won, by stealing swindon's place. A bit cheeky.



just looked it up and eufa/ fairs cup cup qualification for winning the league cup was awarded in 1968 so it looks like arsenal did steal their place

edit- or not (from wiki)
The second League Cup loss was an infamous upset – Arsenal lost 3–1 to Third Division side Swindon Town. Eight of the team had been struck by flu that had led to the postponement of Arsenal's previous League fixture,[2] and Arsenal had only reached extra time thanks to a late goalkeeping error that had allowed Bobby Gould to score. In extra time, Don Rogers scored twice as Arsenal searched for a winner. However, that season was not a total disaster for Arsenal; they had also finished fourth, which won them a place in Europe for the 1969–70 season.
 
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Djmiles

Barndoor Holroyd
Dec 1, 2005
12,074
Kitchener, Canada
Shame. Come on Bradford.
 








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