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n2-n-90=0



Guinness Boy

Tofu eating wokerati
Helpful Moderator
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Jul 23, 2003
34,264
Up and Coming Sunny Portslade
What is the actual question then?


Hannah has 6 orange sweets and some yellow sweets.

Overall, she has n sweets.

The probability of her taking 2 orange sweets is 1/3.

Prove that: n^2-n-90=0

^ is “to the power of”
 




Buzzer

Languidly Clinical
Oct 1, 2006
26,121
Well, I think that the exam board are being arses with this question.

05_exam_1024--(None)_LRG.jpg



Yes, the quadratic is easy but why deliberately confuse students with the rest of the guff? The kids are stressed enough already without playing silly buggers.
 


The Tactician

Well-known member
Feb 18, 2013
1,052
I will admit-I was actually in the exam yesterday and got this question-and answered it without any problems. I'm rubbish at Maths as well-C/B grade sadly. My worst subject by far but I don't see what everyone is complaining about...
 




Mowgli37

Enigmatic Asthmatic
Jan 13, 2013
6,371
Sheffield
Relieved I managed that. Maths was never my forte but having got a B at GCSE within the last couple of years I'd have been pissed not to have got that.
 




Munkfish

Well-known member
May 1, 2006
11,877
Not a ****ing clue. luckily I dont need to work out how many ****ing sweets are left.
 




brightn'ove

cringe
Apr 12, 2011
9,137
London
Aren't these type of questions supposed to test the top 10%?

If so it makes sense that the bottom 90% are complaining about it (i.e. a lot of annoying children with twitter).
 




mac04

Active member
Nov 15, 2011
382
RH12
SPOILER BELOW










The chance of getting an orange sweet first time = 6/n where n is the total number of sweets.
Having already taken an orange sweet, the chance of getting an orange sweet next time = 5/(n-1)
The probability of both being orange sweets is one third, so 6/n x 5/(n-1) = 1/3
Or (6x5)/n(n-1) = 1/3
Then 30/(n^2-n) = 1/3
(3x30)/(n^2-n) = 1
90/(n^2-n) = 1
90=n^2-n
n^2-n-90=0

QED

n is obviously 10, but that wasn't the question.
I passed my O level maths in 1985.
 


Buzzer

Languidly Clinical
Oct 1, 2006
26,121
Actually, I think most people on here, myself included have got the answer wrong. We weren't asked to solve the equation but to prove it. And the pre-amble is vital in proving the formula. Here's the answer:

There are 6 orange sweets and n sweets overall. So, if Hannah takes one, there is 6/n chance of getting an orange sweet. When she takes one,, there is one less orange sweet and one less overall meaning that the probability is now (6-1)/(n-1)=5/n-1.


To find the probability of getting the orange sweet both times, multiply the two fractions: 6/n* 5/n-1 =30/n^2-n.


It shows the probability of taking two orange sweets (1/3) is: 1/3=30/n^2-n.


The denominators then need to be the same, so multiply 1/3 by 30 which would then make 30/90=30/n^2-n.


Discounting the 30 on both sides of the equation makes n^2-n=90. By moving 90 onto the other side of the equation, it will equal zero.




Not so easy, was it?




EDIT - MAC04 beat me to it. Well done matey! Mr Quittenton would be proud of you.
 
Last edited:


Herr Tubthumper

Well-known member
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Jul 11, 2003
59,659
The Fatherland






hans kraay fan club

The voice of reason.
Helpful Moderator
Mar 16, 2005
61,379
Chandlers Ford
n doesn't have to equal 10 (in the raw quadratic equation).

My mind is clearly ODD, because when I said I'd answered it in 15 seconds, I hadn't even spotted the obvious answer, but had answered -9.

-9 x -9 = 81

81 - -9 = 90

n = -9

:jester:
 


Prince Monolulu

Everything in Moderation
Oct 2, 2013
10,201
The Race Hill
Just goes to prove the point that was emphasised over and over at Ashford PTC by the training skippers......R.F.Q.

They even wrote it on the board at the beginning of each exam.
 




Pavilionaire

Well-known member
Jul 7, 2003
30,603
Actually, I think most people on here, myself included have got the answer wrong. We weren't asked to solve the equation but to prove it. And the pre-amble is vital in proving the formula. Here's the answer:

There are 6 orange sweets and n sweets overall. So, if Hannah takes one, there is 6/n chance of getting an orange sweet. When she takes one,, there is one less orange sweet and one less overall meaning that the probability is now (6-1)/(n-1)=5/n-1.


To find the probability of getting the orange sweet both times, multiply the two fractions: 6/n* 5/n-1 =30/n^2-n.


It shows the probability of taking two orange sweets (1/3) is: 1/3=30/n^2-n.


The denominators then need to be the same, so multiply 1/3 by 30 which would then make 30/90=30/n^2-n.


Discounting the 30 on both sides of the equation makes n^2-n=90. By moving 90 onto the other side of the equation, it will equal zero.




Not so easy, was it?




EDIT - MAC04 beat me to it. Well done matey! Mr Quittenton would be proud of you.

Just when you think NSC is full of CJTCs you come along - good work, this took me back 30+ years!
 




Tony Meolas Loan Spell

Slut Faced Whores
Jul 15, 2004
18,067
Vamanos Pest
Well, I think that the exam board are being arses with this question.

05_exam_1024--(None)_LRG.jpg



Yes, the quadratic is easy but why deliberately confuse students with the rest of the guff? The kids are stressed enough already without playing silly buggers.

Thank you! Thats what I was trying to say.
 


Guinness Boy

Tofu eating wokerati
Helpful Moderator
NSC Patron
Jul 23, 2003
34,264
Up and Coming Sunny Portslade
n doesn't have to equal 10 (in the raw quadratic equation).

My mind is clearly ODD, because when I said I'd answered it in 15 seconds, I hadn't even spotted the obvious answer, but had answered -9.

-9 x -9 = 81

81 - -9 = 90

n = -9

:jester:

If I went to a shop and paid good money for -9 sweets I'd come back and shoot the f***ers
 




Prince Monolulu

Everything in Moderation
Oct 2, 2013
10,201
The Race Hill
The chance of getting an orange sweet first time = 6/n where n is the total number of sweets.
Having already taken an orange sweet, the chance of getting an orange sweet next time = 5/(n-1)
The probability of both being orange sweets is one third, so 6/n x 5/(n-1) = 1/3
Or (6x5)/n(n-1) = 1/3
Then 30/(n^2-n) = 1/3
(3x30)/(n^2-n) = 1
90/(n^2-n) = 1
90=n^2-n
n^2-n-90=0

QED

Très bonbon :thumbsup:
 


Herr Tubthumper

Well-known member
NSC Patron
Jul 11, 2003
59,659
The Fatherland
This is pretty basic probability theory. If you have been taught this, it should be reasonably straight forward? The knack is realising it is a probability question, but the clues are there.
 


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