[Football] Advantage rule

[Hugo Rune]

They had a shot from 6 yards out.
Are you saying that the only thing that would've constituted an advantage was a resulting goal?

They should have had a corner too after Sanchez’s save, that’s a massive advantage against us as well!

 

[Deadly Danson]

I disagree with the consensus here (a lot of blue and white spectacles being worn). It wasn't like a rugby situation where the ref waited a couple of minutes, there was probably about a second between the foul and the shot and I think the ref judged, quite rightly, that no advantage had accrued. If the positions had been reversed and an Albion player fouled, we'd have had 11 pages complaining about the decision.

I'm not having that. They had their advantage - a clear shot at goal, had they not had their chance then he would have been correct to pull it back.

 

[origigull]

I disagree with the consensus here (a lot of blue and white spectacles being worn). It wasn't like a rugby situation where the ref waited a couple of minutes, there was probably about a second between the foul and the shot and I think the ref judged, quite rightly, that no advantage had accrued. If the positions had been reversed and an Albion player fouled, we'd have had 11 pages complaining about the decision.

Trouble is their player had a touch on the ball to take it round our player and then had a good shot which was saved. So I would say they had their advantage imo.

 

[Kalimantan Gull]

The rule used to be that it was either a foul or advantage, one or the other. It was fairly recent that they decided you could play advantage, and if none materialised, go back for the foul. As far as I'm aware it's the time elapsed between foul and blowing the whistle that matters, not the quality of the advantage. And also as far as I'm aware, the length of time hasn't been defined but left to referees discretion. So I don't think a mistake was made today, but the double jeopardy nature of that decision might make the FA look at it.

 

[trueblue]

Surely the ref let play go, Southampton had the advantage, got a clear shot on target so why was it then pulled back? It meant they had two chances to score.


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Totally agree. Even had me looking at the FA interpretation. Clearly, they got the advantage the referee intended - an unhindered shot which required an excellent save. The fact they didn’t score shouldn’t have been our problem. I was surprised commentators here made nothing of it and pleased to read that others abroad raised concerns.

 

[Hugo Rune]

Just seen Spurs have exactly the same situation on MoTD2.

Reguilon hacked down, ball goes to Kane who has a shot. No free kick, advantage played out.

Mike Dean at least knows the advantage rule.