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[Football] Hand Ball Rule
- Thread starter amexer
- Start date
Seasider78
Well-known member
- Nov 14, 2004
- 5,939
Rule change to remove VAR yes
Jimmy Grimble
Well-known member
I thought it hit his back!
Disgraceful decision, Jamie Redknapp summed it up “No common sense”.
At the same time, the Blades player who hacked down Moura, was rewarded for his attempt to spoil a dangerous attack.
At the same time, the Blades player who hacked down Moura, was rewarded for his attempt to spoil a dangerous attack.
Sheebo
Well-known member
- Jul 13, 2003
- 29,287
Same here. Assuming they gave it for after it was hit at him - either way it’s a joke!
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The Wizard
Well-known member
- Jul 2, 2009
- 18,383
Another absolute VAR disgrace. Shock horror, the people who are running it are incompetent.
Pogue Mahone
Well-known member
- Apr 30, 2011
- 10,744
Clearly, having disallowed it, the game should have restarted with a free kick to Spurs, as Moura was fouled.
Stupid decision.
Quite funny, though.
Stupid decision.
Quite funny, though.
Is Sky’s co commentator a Blades supporter?
Keeps banging on about “The law is the law” over the disallowed goal, as well as constantly praising the Blades play. Other than the Berge goal, imho they haven’t been easy on my eye.
Keeps banging on about “The law is the law” over the disallowed goal, as well as constantly praising the Blades play. Other than the Berge goal, imho they haven’t been easy on my eye.
The Wizard
Well-known member
- Jul 2, 2009
- 18,383
The whole disallowed it it so much as grazes an arm is total and utter rubbish, how can defenders block a goal bound shot accidently with their arm and it be said to be accidental but any touch in an attacking sense is illegal? There’s a clear line between an accidental handball and a deliberate one. Scrap the rule and just use judgement to make the decision.
dejavuatbtn
Well-known member
I like watching football but when someone applies the laws like this I just switch off because the result just isn’t fair or sporting in any way. It’s is tantamount to cheating. Well, that so how I feel about it.
Joey Jo Jo Jr. Shabadoo
Waxing chumps like candles since ‘75
- Oct 4, 2003
- 11,084
I thought it hit his hand as he fell, but the ref signaled for an advantage to Spurs as their player fell. If there is no advantage because the Spurs player handled surely the game should restart with a free kick to Spurs?
What a daft rule that is – In my opinion, the referee acknowledged the foul by waving advantage, however no advantage was ever possible once the ball is deemed to hit the arm/hand. In view of this that is surely denial of a goal scoring opportunity, so a free kick and red card should have been the decision – It may seem harsh bit if you want to apply the letter of the law you can’t have it both ways!
Nah, There used to be this policy or practice that once the ref has signalled he is playing advantage, he can't bring it back, but I'm sure I've seen them wave, and then realise that there is no advantage so pull it back anyway. But even with that in mind, because play continued enough they were able to get a clear shot away, the advantage was played and it can't come back.
It's frustrating, I think, because of the Man U goal against us (at old trafford) where the ball hit maguire's arm and it's not chalked off. Those defending this decision defend it because that is what the rule is, and how it has been applied, but there is clearly an example of it not being applied.
Joey Jo Jo Jr. Shabadoo
Waxing chumps like candles since ‘75
- Oct 4, 2003
- 11,084
It's a free kick to Spurs for the foul, but its never a red card.
At the moment the Sheff Utd player fouls the Spurs player there is no goal scoring opportunity, so there is no red card offence. Even if there was a goal scoring opportunity a red card is not given if the player is making an attempt to play the ball, which i think the Utd player was doing.
The goal scoring opportunity only comes about after the foul, the first hand ball by the Spurs player and then the Sheff Utd player kicking the ball against the Spurs player when hes on the floor (which may actually be a second hand ball). The game should have been stopped after the first hand ball as there was no advantage at that point and Spurs given a free kick.
Joey Jo Jo Jr. Shabadoo
Waxing chumps like candles since ‘75
- Oct 4, 2003
- 11,084
That just defies all logic, even for football. Like you i'm certain I've seen refs play an advantage and then call the game back when its clear there isn't one. It's certainly another rule that should be looked at, along with handball, because the advantage he played for Spurs lasted all of a 10th of a second and was gone the moment the handball happened, that goal was never going to stand. As the handball only happened as the result of a foul it should have been brought back for a free kick to Spurs.
I've looked up the rule (http://www.thefa.com/football-rules-governance/lawsandrules/laws/football-11-11/law-5---the-referee) and it states
I still think there is scope for the ref to restart with the free kick, because as I said above the advantage was over as soon as the handball happened, which was less than a few seconds after the advantage was played. Spurs have been doubly penalised by this.
Last edited:
Super Steve Earle
Well-known member
As usual, where VAR is concerned, I seem to be in a minority of one. But in my eyes, he clearly reaches for the ball as he falls and since the rule says it's handball, VAR confirms it and the goal is rightly disallowed. I have no problem with the law being correctly applied. I would have a problem if Kane (again) had been allowed to have the goal stand. P.S. I Don't have a problem with the law in question either. As I have said many times before, I believe VAR favours the smaller clubs such as ours as it stops unconscious bias in favour of bigger clubs.