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OK! Opinions, eh?

Obviously, in order for the game to be in an "open play" situation the ball has to be "in play" - again, I doubt anyone would dispute that. However, your definition of "open play" in your second sentence is just that: your definition. Plenty of folk, including me, would say that "open play"...

Whoa - who says that "open play" is synonymous with "in play"? Well, obviously, you do; but do you have any evidence to back up this assertion? I can't imagine that anyone would dispute your definition of "in play", not least because of your citing of the relevant Laws, but I see no content...

I'm not sure what you're questioning.... So can't answer, I'm afraid.

I assume you voted for the "....you fool" option? You're quite correct, of course.

Excellent - 3 votes, 3 answers. Anyone care to explain their view? I went for 2. Logic: It has to be more than 1, because one could be just a 1 yard tap to someone beside a FK taker to get a direct line to goal without having to go over the wall. To me, this counts as part of the set piece...

After how many passes from a set piece can a goal be considered from "open play"? With a nod to an idea from El P on his "I would walk 500 miles" (or something) thread: We have a set piece and some number of passes later we score (however unlikely that may seem). After how many passes can the...