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It would be nice for once to have a footie debate on this forum without some arsehat getting all high and mighty. The fact that he collected it in his own half is the reason for this debate. If the offside rule still applies in that instance then fair enough but this particular scenario is...

There's some dispute amongst the people I discussed this with after the game. In the first half, Lingard (I think) was the last man and just in the Reading half as the ball was played but collected it well inside the Brighton half but was given offside. Is this correct? Some people said yes...