Search results

You're right, there are definitely an increasing number of cases (even using a 'pure' definition) that are there or very close, but it's the '1 in 5' bit based on the UK definition that doesn't really ring true..........

Good post by beorhthelm. It's a relative measure against median (UK) income, so whilst he is probably quoting facts, the description doesn't really fit the reality - 'absolute' poverty for me can be seen on the streets of, say, Mumbai, not on South London (for example) council estates where...