Search results

My comment was nothing to do with your incorrect spelling. More the irony of your patronising tone before accusing someone else of doing the same.

'Patronising' Oh the Irony dear triggaaar.

Wow another nugget. If you pop yourself onto a referee's course, you'll learn the rules. But not all referee's apply the rules to the letter of the law. I.e. i'm assuming you realise that as long as part of your foot is behind the line on a throw in, it's legal? Or are you not actually aware...

Links? No. The rule changes a good few years ago but i can assure you that they are correct. There must be a rules/laws page somewhere but i couldn't tell you where

Very rich given your tone of comments. If you've played the game, you'd know the rules better. Simple as that. I answered a question that the OP asked. Several people have thanked me for it. You on the other hand have been a total d*ck about it. So yes, go and get some experience in the game...

Funny how others understood my first comment, yet you fail to after a number of comments? Perhaps read up on the rules or i don't know, maybe try playing the game? Could help ��

Again, you've answered your own point.

You did ask a question for me to answer with regards to the rules. And you're just not understanding this at all mate. Take the West Ham game. Knockaert was fouled and the ball continued on as an advantage. That is fine. Advantage can be awarded to the player or team, the only time when the...

You've answered your own question there. With the West Ham game, thats fine. It was an advantage to be played. You don't pull it back for a team advantage. It only ever needs to be done if the referee has to award a free kick after giving an advantage

On your first point, obviously that's advantageous to the PLAYER and therefore an advantage can be given If the player who receives the ball 'ballses' it up, then the game continues as normal

Yeah no worries. So let's say Player A is fouled. As he is fouled, his attempted ball does NOT reach his intended target, then there is no advantage and a free kick is awarded. If player A's ball DOES reach his intended target (i.e. player B) but then the ball is lost by another player, the...

TECHNICALLY on the new rules, the referee got it spot on. The advantage is now attributed to the PLAYER and not the team. It can be argued, Murray got the advantage but the team didn't, but that's irrelevant. That being said, a near identical incidemt occurred a bit later for Stoke and the...