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It's amazing isn't it, with the millions of games of football that have been played that we still get scenarios where the law is under debate because it's a novel occurrence. Even the answer I posted yesterday seems to have sparked debate. Just to clarify, I never asked the ref. It's a copy and...

This has been bugging the hell out of me so I did a bit of googling and it is difficult to find anything on it but I did find this. It's from a US site but even so, it's still a FIFA registered ref who is giving the reply. He reckons that the ref has given advantage to a player who then chooses...

Let's at least clear this one up right now. The words 'law' and 'rule' are synonyms therefore either description can be used. Cambridge online dictionary:

Ah, gotcha. That makes sense. Thanks for the explanation. My gut feeling though is that the spirit of the law should hold sway over the letter of the law and in this case the referee gave us advantage but we lost it almost immediately so there was no real advantage.

Sorry but I don't understand the nuance between team advantage and player advantage. Can you explain please?

Fair point. In my defence I'm pissed.

Can someone please clarify an incident that happened today. Our player was fouled so the ref signalled for advantage to be played but the ball fell immediately to Murray who was in an offside position. The ref then signalled a free kick to Stoke. That's not right, is it?